A 32-year-old man presents to the hospital with vomiting and abdominal
pain. He has had a 7 years history of Crohn"s disease
which has been difficult to control. On physical examination he has
pyrexia(38.2°C) and there is a marked right lower quadrant
tenderness. His WBC is 16600 with left shift. The abdominal CT
shows a 4 cm abscess arising from the terminal ileum.
Which of the following statements is true regarding this patient?
Question:
Surgery should be avoided at all costs.
Answer:
incorrect
Question:
There is evidence that mesalamine, high-dose metronidazole, or azathioprine/ 6-mercaptopurine started shortly after surgery can reduce postoperative recurrence.
Answer:
correct
Question:
He should be treated with high dose steroids.
Answer:
incorrect
Question:
This patient is expieriencing an unusual complication of Crohn"s disease.
Answer:
incorrect
Question:
Surgery that removes the abscess and the diseased segment of the bowel has strong probability of being curative.
